Thursday, October 4, 2012

Chapter 26 - Divine Command Theory and The Problem of Evil

Chapter 26 - Divine Command Theory and The Problem of Evil

After decoding the various symbols within the Book of Revelation with sufficient evidence throughout, it presents the dilemma that a creator is not the author of such a document. Rather, the author being very human and conscious of the possibility of failure concerning the nascent Christian community composed a document expressing his fears. Therefore, the Book of Revelation is a motivational document addressed to the oppressed early Christian community facing the brute force of the Roman Empire's onslaught while competing with various early Jewish messianic movements.
The exposure of such a document presents the obvious conclusion that this document was intended to be addressed and fulfilled during the era of the early Christian community. The chronology of events are shown throughout its decoding and concludes with the controversial verdict of a false human prediction. In other words, a clear false prophecy. The prediction given by an all-too-human author gives the conclusion that an error exists within the book of Revelation and the rest of the New Testament canon. Finally, concluding within the text, the error of the supposed return of a superhuman Jesus.

The two main examples, which are apparent clashing contradictions, are given: John's Millennialism model versus Paul's Dispensationalism model. The two models previously stated are expressed within and throughout the New Testament canon. Furthermore, the New Testament canon is complimented away by the last book added historically by Augustine of Hippo: The book of Revelation.
The human errors given above ensures the validity of the Divine Command Theory at least to the Abrahamic faiths. A theory which states that if a creator, the source of divine command, supposedly gives a command then this 'command' is universal and valid for all times and for all societies. The inventor of the term: 'Divine Command Theory' is James Rachels. Rachels states in his treatise - God and Moral Autonomy (1997):

1. First, we might mean that right conduct is right because God commands it. For example, according to Exodus 20:16, God commands us to be truthful. On this option, the reason we should be truthful is simply that God requires it. Apart from the divine command, truth telling is neither good nor bad. It is God’s command that makes truthfulness right.

Divine Command Theory is actually a model or theory which exposes the flaw in 'religion' because it forces the question of where 'good', 'goodness' or 'morality' originates? In other words, does it originate from 'religion' or the absence of it? The proposal is that 'good', goodness' or 'morality' in general derives from the absence of religion. Therefore, our moral actions are either innate or acquired.

The Theorem is produced in relation to the Problem of Evil:

1) Good produces Good.
2) Good produces Evil.
3) Evil produces Good.
4) Evil produces Evil.

These four categories could be deducted by reading through and summarizing the theories contained in the books of Immanuel Kant. The German philosopher did not invent such categories but observed these inherit categories through the actions of human beings. He developed the imperatives which already existed throughout human history. Many social examples or settings he gave, throughout his books, has shown that the theorem above is valid. Kant and later philosophers like James Rachels, noted the problem of the autonomy of a moral agent and the general problem of anthropomorphism among humanity. Point 1) is Kant's categorical imperative, points 2) the negation of the hypothetical imperative and 3) the hypothetical imperative, and point 4) is the negation of the categorical imperative.

The previous four categories could be best illustrated by the interaction of three agents: The acting agent, reacting agents and the projected agent. The acting agent is the sole individual who peforms an act or actions into the physical world. The role of the reacting agents, or other individuals within society, is to interpret such actions as either good or evil. In other words, the acting agent and the reacting agents interact in the physical world or material realm. The interaction, the source of the categorical imperative, will result in a good or evil act. The last agent, the projected agent, exists in the immaterial realm or the mind of the acting agent or the sole individual. The projected agent is a product of the mind of the acting agent even if the projected agent is proven to be based on truth or facts. Nevertheless, some projected agents are proven to also be based on false assumptions and absurdities.

For example, the acting agent performs a good act which is universally accepted as good by the reacting agents which is rule #1. Next, the acting agent performs an act which seems good but resulted in an evil result. In other words, some good effort was put into the act which was neutralized by an evil result, which is rule #2. The evil act of the acting agent resulted in a good result which is rule #3. Finally, the evil act of an acting agent resulted in an evil result which is rule #4.

The evidence of this within the Book of Revelation is given in Revelation 6:8 where God commands and allows an 'evil' action to occur resulting in an eventual 'good' result. The previous is classified as (#3) among the four categories mentioned previously. However, this is an example of a metaphysical example, or symbolic and non-physical evidence copying the verse in Ezekiel 9:4-7. If we are to believe that the book of Revelation is a 'divine' text then God has proven to be both 'good' and 'evil' which is also expressed in the book of Isaiah 45:7 where God or the creator admits of producing or creating 'evil'. James Rachels above presented a verse from Exodus 20:16 which is an example that the action, of truth telling, could be done without a 'divine' command and it could be proven to be both 'good' and 'evil' therefore validating an earlier observation by Immanuel Kant.

Kant's observation is deontological or an inner description of actions by individuals. In the previous case, the christian's projected agent is the acting agent as told by John while the characters within the Book of Revelation are the reacting agents. To further understand the illustration of the four given imperatives, the first result was derived from the acting agent then the "production" is interpreted by the reacting agents in nature. For instance, "evil produces good" which is an example of Kant's hypothetical imperative. Both imperatives by Kant, categorical and hypothetical, resulted in a good condition. While both negations of the two previous imperatives resulted in an evil condition.

Nevertheless, the obvious historical answer is that these commands derive from earlier documents from ancient Egypt where these commands were common and attributed to the various gods among the ancient "pagan" Egyptians. So, the question arises which god or gods deserves to be worshipped? The various sources negate each other therefore proving that these commands do not derive from a divine source but rather through natural biological altruism. In other words, deriving through the absence of religion. It also means that the above verses are from the human imagination and natural desires which is a reflection of the cultural environment. In other words, an example of relative or subjective morality.

The defining result is that the book of Revelation was proven flawed by showing contradictions in the competing doctrines through Paul's earlier Dispensationalism and John's later Millennialism.
These are both doctrines which are contradictory, as was proven in an earlier chapter, because these two are false expectations. Therefore, a clear false prediction of Jesus' physical return. Most importantly, both claim to have received commands from a divine source: Paul's Dispensationalism (Jesus' return BEFORE the Temple's destruction and desecration of the Temple copying the language noted in the book of Daniel) was explained away and covered by the later doctrine of John's Millennialism (Jesus' return AFTER the A.D.70 focus event because of the Roman destruction of the Temple in the book of Revelation). If John's millennialism was proven flawed then Paul's Dispensationalism is also flawed and therefore both are in error. Furthermore; it proves clearly, without a doubt, the two of the so-called Abrahamic faiths (Christianity and Islam) are clearly false. Furthermore, the earlier or previous faith (Judaism) is also flawed because of borrowing from an earlier belief system (ancient Egypt's various belief systems). In other words, all three previous so-called Abrahamic belief systems have problems and flaws. If this is the case then the so-called Abrahamic faiths are proven fallible. Nevertheless, the stated previous evidence does not prove nor disprove the absence of a neutral creator in the universe (this is discussed in a previous chapter). The author, James Rachel, in several of his books gives plenty of evidence against the other non-Abrahamic faiths in general. His books present the idea that 'religion' in general is flawed and that morality derives from a non-divine source. However, all the previous evidence given does not mean that we as humans remove actions of 'goodness' and acts of kindness from our lives. The evidence given proves that kindness or 'goodness' is universal without any doubts.

Therefore, the creation of 'religion' is a political by-product enforced by tribal elites to preserve the local tribal allegiances. The reason is because the rational agent creates the categorical imperative. Or rather, the rational agent redefines the social moral codes by reapplying the catgorical imperative. The main question is where does the rational agent derive the imperative? It obviously derives from biological evolution. The scholars to mention in this field are Charles Darwin and Peter Singer. The latter being a scholar who has introduced the idea, through historical observation, of an 'expanding (tribal) circle' where the concerns of the local tribe expands into the realm and inclusion of other external tribes. The previous a well-known researcher and scholar to have presented 'the theory of evolution' which today could be proven without a doubt.

Through social evolution, the human race has expanded the tribal circle to include other tribes which is noted by Peter Singer. The previous example was noted by Paul himself in the Book of Romans (Romans Chapter eleven) where this social evolutionary example was applied "religiously" but evidently resulted in a material benefit of the message and expansion of the initial local tribe. There is also evidence that Paul and John borrowed, not only religious expressions from the Old Testament canon, and also from the Greek philosophy disciplines and Caesar's enactments to expand roman citizenship, i.e. expanding the tribal circle. The previous example is not evidence of a creator but rather evidence of social human evolution to expand and include external tribes outside its immediate circle. Therefore, the writings within the New Testament canon or texts are actually the result of natural social evolution rather than a 'divine command'. The previous controversial conclusion results in the fact that the religion of Christianity is part of the timeline of the dialectical material history of the human race. Furthermore, if it is part of the dialectical history of the human race then the Abrahamic religions and/or most religions are prone to be replaced and discarded by thinking sentient beings.

The above evidence presented explains the flaw of the so-called Abrahamic faiths. Therefore; Paul introduced, intentionally, the possible concept of the 'universal tribe' with its complimentary component of a particular cultural subjective morality. Nevertheless, what Paul has done is to express the eventual dialectical material revolution of the Judeo-Christian community or society through an immaterial expression and language through the tools of a specified 'religion'. However, Paul's expression throughout the New Testament makes it possible also to eventually discard Christianity because it is now categorically made part of the cycle of the dialectical material timeline where ideas are constantly replaced with better ideas through social evolution and revolution. The previous decoding of the book of Revelation makes it possible for the previous event to occur. The event of moving or shifting Christianity from an absolute belief system of infallibility into the category of fallibility, makes it a replaceable part of the machine - general human history and society. Therefore, the realm of fallibility makes a belief system a product and by-product of the desires and imagination of mankind. A realm where systems are constantly replaced by mankind for a better system when new conditions arrive or presents itself for renewal. Furthermore; the only concept that is infallible is a natural, evolutionary, and a universal concept. This concept which surpasses any subjective 'religion' is called objective morality.

The ultimate observation arrives: the book of Revelation; written by John, is rather a natural book introducing into the human material dialectical timeline, a non-violent social 'revolution' propagated through the minds of various individuals. The non-violent revolution, Christianity, has outlived its Jewish messianic counterparts to simply replace an outdated locally tribal and Judaic belief system. The old tribal system was replaced with something better like the introduction of the 'universal tribe',i.e. universi. However; the new revolutionary Pauline system did not directly address the problem of evil but rather masked it, or attempt to solve it, with a humanly flawed 'divine command'.
The issue concerning morality was addressed by Immanuel Kant in several of his books or treatises. His theories has proven that morality in general is objective. For example, 'Thou shall not Kill or murder' is a universal code among humanity despite cultural differences. Even though; several scholars later, including Rachels, developed an idea that each culture varies in their understanding of moral codes, i.e. subjective morality. Despite these differences each culture had a 'Law giver' who tried to achieve or pursue objective morality within their unique cultural environment. Therefore, proving that morality is objective when introduced into the dialectic material timeline. The previous observation presents the current issue facing philosophical scholars. The issue of where objective morality derives from is debated constantly but solved through social evolution. Therefore, the only immaterial idea that is infallible is objective morality observed through social and biological evolution. Furthermore, the only fallible ideas are: 1) 'religion', 2) cultural based laws and, 3) proven flawed economic theories. This process naturally happens through social evolution when these immaterial ideas are evaluated and eventually discarded through refutation. The prime example of this are old religions which are no longer followed. For example, the religion by the name of Zoroastrianism was slowly abandoned by the Persian people over several years. This historical example is not an anomaly but rather a historical trend. Another obvious example is the complete disappearance of the ancient Egyptian religions. The eventual evolution happens because 'religion' in general is based on subjective morality. Paul's Christian 'religion' is also based on subjective morality. There are variables within Christianity which are categorically proven to be based on objective morality because these flaws or factors were already shared among pre-Abrahamic tribes and other belief systems.

Therefore, Paul's ideas are based on a cultural bias and based on a flawed subjective morality. There are several evidences or examples to prove this hypothesis. First, the issue of slavery within the New Testament canon would be presented in two parts: directly and indirectly. The evidence is the direct order by Paul to tell "slaves" to be loyal to masters (Ephesians 6:5-9). The next evidence is the indirect order expressed by Paul in the letter to Philemon, which is an example of condoning slavery, where he does not say emphatically to stop the practice. This is primarily troubling for anyone who is following the current moral codes. The practice of slavery is even mentioned by the gospel writers in Matthew 18:25 and Luke 12:45-48. It is also reflected in the Old Testament canon in Deuteronomy 23:15-16. Even if we are to pretend that these commands and regulations are temporary then why Paul did not openly oppose the practice of slavery amongst his followers? Another important question arises concerning the Book of Revelation, why has John did not mention the removal of slavery? The reason is because John, Paul and the New Testament writers all expected the return of Jesus to be during their lifetime or two to three generations afterwards! Which is also another proof of a false prophecy and a flawed human prediction! The example is given in the Book of Revelation, the very treatise which predicted not only the physical return of Jesus but also the termination of the material timeline of history. John, in the Book of Revelation, commits the same error in Revelation 13:16 by describing "slaves" receiving the mark of the beast. This example and verse is an indirect reference to the Roman empire itself. Therefore, identifying Nero as the man of "666". However, even today at this modern time, it is now proven that the abhorrence of slavery is a universal moral imperative as much as 'Thou shall not kill or murder'. This has been proven empirical and philosophically abhorrent among sentient beings over time. The evolution of this particular moral code has transformed it into a universal moral imperative proving the existence of an objective moral code evolving through time. Therefore, this transformation or social evolution was enacted without the direct command from God which was clearly missing from Paul's letters to his followers. Furthermore, the most important question manifests itself, where was God to tell Paul that slavery is wrong and immoral?

The next evidence is when Paul tells females or women to be keep silent in the congregation (1st Corinthians 14:34). These orders despite being minor issues during Paul's era, have been disregarded by most followers of Christianity today or during the modern era, proving that the "Law" stated by Paul is not an expression of a universal objective morality nor deriving from a creator. If the "Law" stated by Paul in 1st Corinthians was from God, then the "Law" would have been proven universal and infallible over the course of human history after Paul's lifetime. In other words, God would have presented an infallible law which would have never been violated by fallible human beings. Most importantly, even if not addressed directly then why God did not correct Paul concerning slavery or females speaking in front of a congregation? If there was ever a correction by his God, within the New Testament text, then this correction or command would have proven that his God existed. Has his God forgot to address to Paul the future fallibility of his Christian tribe? To include; why has John, in the book of Revelation, did not address the issue in the litany of "sins" in Revelation 21:8 or in the beginning addressing the seven churches? Of course, John points out "Jezebel" or a "Jezebel"(comparing 2nd Kings 9:10 and 2nd Kings 9:36-37) in addressing the "sin" of the Pergamos congregation or church in Revelation 2:12-23 but this addresses the "sin" of eating foods sacrificed to idols. The term "fornication" is either the problem concerning eating foods sacrificed to idols or the actual act of fornication or giving loyalty to the Roman Empire or all of the above? In the previous example, it presents the problem of disagreement between John and Paul therefore who is receiving the true message from Jesus their God? If they agreed about women not speaking in front of congregations then why is not the issue stated by John in the Book of Revelation specifically pointing out this particular "sin" in Revelation 21:8?

The previous evidence proves that the New Testament is not from a creator but rather a reflection of the previous cultural moral codes. It even proves that these cultural codes derive from the previous Jewish moral codes. The Christian moral code (and even the Jewish moral code) has in its core some of the general objective moral codes. However, the objective moral code derives from human understanding through social biological evolution and not from an infallible creator. Rather, Paul's directives and even his supposed 'divine command' derives from a flawed relativistic or subjective moral code. If it is culturally relativistic then the New Testament writers are not receiving their commands from a god nor a creator but from their cultural environment. Therefore, if it is from a cultural environment then the laws or commands are not from a creator. The very process presented previously is not completed without further evidence. Let us evaluate the original Ten commandments by Moses. It is known historically that Moses was influenced, philosophically, by the actions and belief of a previous pharaoh during his era. The name of this pharaoh is Akhenaton who instituted the worship of one god or creator - the sun god of Egypt. Nevertheless, Moses observed the various ancient Egyptian moral codes but made ten, out of the thirty ancient Egyptian commands, the guidance of the Jewish tribe. Let us be rational on this subject. If the Law of Moses was universal and completely infallible then there should be neither redundancy nor subjective commands. If there are redundancy or repeats and also subjective commands then Moses never received a 'divine command'. However, there are at least two clear examples noted: 1) The regulation to follow the Sabbath is subjective because it does not cover non-Jews. 2) The order not to 'steal' and not to 'covet' or 'desire' your neighbor's property. These two commands, 'steal' and 'covet', are also related with 'love thy neighbor'. The previous is an example of redundancy.

Paul's reaction to the above problem was to revise it. The revision forced the idea of Paul's 'universal tribe' through 'grafting'(or adopting) non-Jews stated in Romans chapter eleven. The revision or change allowed the two previous problems to be non-factors between the members of the new Pauline tribe. These factors were the Sabbath day and property related commands instituted by Moses. The Sabbath day actually was related to working and simply a day of remembrance. The Sabbath was redefined by the leadership of the Jesus movement (Paul, James and others) and the property commands were simplified. The problem is that if the god of Moses was perfect then why institute these commands when they were intended to be broken in the future? Or is this yet another example of social evolution?

Another example is the economic absurdity of Paul's evaluation of an economic observation when he states in 2nd Thessalonians 3:10 an economic directive. This could be disproven for obvious historical reasons. For instance, if a company decides to hire or not hire it is based on market forces and not the individual's willingness to work. The previous sentence is an observation of the introduction of the industrial revolution and industrial age where the phenomenon of long unemployment is observed by an epistemological reality. In other words, based on empirical data and facts. Furthermore, the transformation of the industrial revolution shifted the human mass from mostly occupations in the agricultural realm into industrial occupations. The main question: if the message(s) of Paul, and the later convenient Millennialist John in the book of Revelation, was meant to be fulfilled after their generation then why did God omit to mention the industrial revolution? There is not even a hint of any social transformation from a mostly agricultural economy into an industrial one. The economic flaw acted upon by Paul, and other New Testament writers, was their negation of this universal social transformation. The next example is very convincing of John's false predictions. Why did John fail to mention the "sin" of usury? Which was one of the causes that lead to the destruction of the Temple in B.C. 587 by the Babylonians (Ezekiel chapter eighteen). Why did John fail to mention the causes of unemployment in the Roman empire? The reason of the previous observation is based on the fact that the rise of slave labor contributed to the many riots within the Roman empire because it lead to high unemployment among the Roman citizenry. Therefore, the composition of Revelation is based on material issues and self-interest to preserve the nascent Christian community against the material chaos within the Roman empire. The writer of the Book of Revelation has clearly employed a political tactic using 'religious' symbolism. The writer of the Book of Revelation, John, has employed the 'window of opportunity' tactic and 'the expansion of the scope of conflict' tool, a political phenomenon noted by E.E. Schattschneider.

Paul's predictions is all-too-human and exposes his message as a flawed 'divine command'. Clearly, the omissions of the economic 'divine commands' within the Bible itself is proof of fallibility. Again, the book of Revelation and the rest of the New Testament canon failed to mention the importance of forbidding 'usury'. Furthermore, failed to predict the introduction and invention of the modern banking system. Of course, the only religious figure to mention such regulation was "prophet" Muhammad within the Islamic texts. It leads to the absurdity that Islam is a valid faith, among Christians and Jews, especially when Muhammad is fairly noted by attempting to apply such regulation - (Deuteronomy 15:11, Ezekiel 18:5-13, Nehemiah 5:7 and Galatians 2:10). What happened? A later 'religion' outperformed the Judeo-Christian standard and community? Muhammad, the Arab social revolutionary, by applying the very regulations which has been missing among the new tribe(Christian) and old tribe(Jewish) since after A.D.70 has presented a dilemma. Why has John, the author of the book of Revelation, omitted such an important regulation? Since the "sin" of usury contributed to the destruction, according to Ezekiel(Ezekiel chapter eighteen), of the previous Temple by the Babylonians and then repeated by the new Babylonians, i.e. the Roman empire (Revelation 18:2 and 18:10). It is obvious, the book of Revelation is not a book of a divine source but rather the product of the natural heart and mind. Why has Paul not received a command concerning the dangers of the modern banking system like something similar in Ezekiel 18:5-13? The reason is because Paul predicted falsely the physical return of Jesus before the Temple's destruction by the Romans. The next false prediction was then formed after the execution of Paul by the Romans and Nero - The Book of Revelation. Therefore, John also predicted falsely the physical return of Jesus after the Roman's empire destruction of the Temple in A.D.70. These are the facts: Usury is necessary for the capitalist profit system to survive and this has been proven through social evolution. The imposition of usury or financial interest allows the introduction of privatization in the modern era of financial exchanges and economics. Therefore, all three faiths: Judaism, Christianity and Islam are proven flawed and fallible. The point is that the transformation of society from a mostly agricultural economy into an industrial one was complimented with the growth of the "usury" or financial interest system.

Another example is the term: "Amen" which is shared with the followers of Islam(opening prayers in Islam). This term is rooted within the ancient 'religion' of the ancient Egyptians especially among the followers of pharaohs Akhenaton and Amenhotep. In the ancient Egyptian religion, the term "amen", means the "concealed one". This is explained in depth, on page 85, by the scholar - Anthony T. Browder - in his book Exploding the myths Volume 1: Nile Valley contributions to Civilization. Moses then repeated this pattern of worship stated in Deuteronomy chapter 27:15-26 by also mentioning the term "amen" in a ceremonial mass proclamation after repeating the moral codes.
The previous various examples proves the absurdity of the 'divine command' within the New Testament canon. Furthermore, the physical return of Jesus during Paul's or John's generation is also proven to be false by the very words of Paul himself (1st Corinthians 7:26-29).

Another evidence is the attempt by James, the supposed half-brother of Jesus, to state in his own manner that the Christian subjective morality is infallible. However, by mixing obviously the generally observed and derived objective morality or the mixing of the two is actually evidence that the words within his book and the rest of the New Testament are not the actual words of God but a human manifesto. If we read through the book of James, a book attributed to his authorship, we could see he recognized an objective moral code (James 2:8, 2:10-12) which was derived from the texts of Moses. Moses derived his codes from the Egyptian religious moral codes which contains at least thirty moral codes. James; through the book of James attributed to him, added specific Christian subjective moral codes (James 2:12, 2:17-20), which are products of his social environment, along with the objective moral codes mentioned previously. It is obvious, Christianity as a 'religion', survived based on its non-violent emphasis and an attachment to the universal and naturally derived objective moral codes. However, is this the case? After the collapse of the Roman Empire, the Christian community took the reigns of leadership. The Christian leadership then went aggressive to eliminate the 'Gnostic' followers and other minorities. The pursuit to eliminate and purge out certain elements counters the initial message of the founders of the said belief system. Is it moral or ethical to "purge" or eliminate certain segments of the previous peaceful movement which have a different "gospel"? The previous particular case in history where the oppressed becomes the oppressors as is explained through the words of the recent modern existentialist Albert Camus in his book - The Rebel - is evident in the case of Christianity. The behaviour of the movement proves, even in this case, that Christianity is a natural product of human beings rather than a supernatural creation.

The attainment or pursuit of objective morality is the pursuit of happiness. Furthermore, morality is objective and it does not derive from a creator. Rather; it is based on the actions and understanding of sentient beings,through natural biological altruism, by observing the prime goal of ultimate justice and happiness,i.e. objective morality.

The subject of 'Rule Utilitarianism' and 'Act Utilitarianism' comes up when doubtful circumstances arises concerning the manifestation of 'evil' in society. The examples will be given and then a response:

"where do you put your money? Apart from ethical considerations (do you lend to a liquor store that provides good income to a family, do you invest in a business that is run by a polygamist, and will feed all his wives and children etc. etc.) one could also take a more economic view: what will help a country grow?"

The response: The issue of each example could be answered to the current laws within each economic case. If there are no stated laws concerning each case than it is permissible because "evil" has not been enacted by the one giving money because the individual has not violated any standing law within that particular society. The formation of a law is a common agreement between the ruled and the ruler(s) of a society. In other words, an agreement between the acting agent(individual) and reacting agents(community or society). If there is a standing law against giving money to any circumstance or examples given above then it violates the utilitarian ethic.

There are also cases which were not imagined and this is where Immanuel Kant's observation comes into the picture. The categorical imperative has been summarized earlier as:"Good producing Good". However, it is really a statement suggesting that morality is absolutely objective. The statement by Immanuel Kant is stating that individuals knows what is right and wrong without knowledge of agreed upon laws. For instance; the individuals(moral acting agents) who oppose unjust current laws, agreed upon laws, are following and recognizing the feeling of Kant's absolutely objective morality. There are hints within Kant's writings which suggest that these "feelings" of knowing absolute objective morality derive from a supposed supernatural source. However, as will be proven these "feelings" are actually derived from biological evolution and therefore social environments. Morality is not absolutely objective because it will be proven not to be so.

Therefore, an extension of the utilitarian ethic has already been elaborated by current utilitarian philosophers to include the "feelings" of natural rights expressed through Immanuel Kant's categorical and hypothetical imperatives.

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